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Exam Code: 132-S-712-2
Exam Name: Avaya (Specialist: Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Design Elective Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 When using the Avaya Solution Designer tool, the License Quantity for Agent
Connections should be
equal to the total number of _____.
A.agents in a typical shift
B.simultaneous headset connections
C.inbound lines purchased by the customer
D.outbound lines purchased by the customer
Answer:B

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NO.2 Your customer runs a collections call center. When an inbound call comes in, your
customer wants be
able to keep the customer from being called back on the outbound jobs if payment was
received on the
inbound call. Which feature automatically marks records as uncallable on outbound jobs if the
agent uses
a code indicating an inbound call resulted in a payment from the customer?
A.Do Not Call
B.Sales Verification
C.Generic Postupdate
D.Realtime Campaign Update
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which feature meets the needs of customers who want to run jobs that play messages
to both phones
answered by live customers and phones answered by answering machines?
A.Autowrap
B.Virtual Agent
C.Agent Blending
D.Managed Dialing
Answer:B

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NO.4 You are using the Avaya Solution Designer. What is the correct input on the ACD line
on the Predictive
Agent Blend software screen for an Avaya Proactive Contact System using Predictive Agent
Blending
with one ACD?
A.leave line blank
B.type in the number 1
C.leave line at the default (0)
D.type in the ACD brand name
Answer:C

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NO.5 Your customer has a group of agents that handle clerical and other duties and who
handle calls only
when needed. A supervisor notifies these agents when they need to answer calls because
calls are
queueing or being abandoned. However, the response is often too late to be of much help
and the result
is many abandoned calls. Which Avaya Proactive Contact feature meets this customer's
needs?
A.Virtual Agent
B.Person to Person
C.Intelligent Call Blending
D.Native Voice & Data Transfer
Answer:B

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NO.6 What is Update Time?
A.the time period that begins when the agent greets the customer and ends when the
customer hangs up
B.the time period that begins when the customer hangs up and ends when the agent
releases the
customer record
C.the time period that begins when the agent releases the customer record and ends when
the agent
receives the next call
D.the time period that begins when the customer first tells the agent pertinent information and
the agent
records it and ends when the agent releases the record
Answer:B

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NO.7 Your customer has difficulty sorting through their current system's reports to give
supervisors
information that pertains only to their particular group. Which feature should in Avaya
Proactive Contact
meets the customer's need?
A.Shared Lists
B.Unit Work List
C.List Distribution
D.HierarchyManager
Answer:D

Avaya exam   132-S-712-2   132-S-712-2

NO.8 The Avaya Proactive Contact access server provides which two functions within the
system? (Choose
two.)
A.connects calls to agents
B.manages the internal LAN
C.serves as a dial-in point for access to the digital switch and CPU
D.is the interface that supervisors and agents use on their computers
Answer:B C

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NO.9 Which tool is new to the Editor Application in the Avaya Proactive Contact Supervisor
software?
A.verification of jobs
B.record selection reports
C.messages files and scripts
D.IVR fields in record selections
Answer:C

Avaya questions   132-S-712-2   132-S-712-2

NO.10 Which two telemarketing situations would merit greater than a 2:1 line to agent ratio?
(Choose two.)
A.using unconfirmed contact data
B.using one of the call blending solutions
C.using unsolicited calling lists (cold calling individuals)
D.calling customers with multiple contact numbers (home, business, etc.)
Answer:A C

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Exam Code: 3000-2
Exam Name: Avaya (ACSS Small and Medium Enterprise (SME) Communications)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 103 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which three requirements are collected during the Infrastructure Data Gathering
phase? (Choose
three.)
A. Productivity Requirements
B. Physical Layer: Existing Telecom Infrastructure
C. Above Physical Layer: Existing Data Network
D. Line of Business application integration needs
E. Current PBX/Key System Features and Dial Plan
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.2 Which supported hardware is needed to protect an analog extension port that is in a
different building
than the control unit?
A. ITWLinx towerMAX DS/2
B. Analog surge protector
C. ITWLinx towerMAX SCL/8
D. IP Office Barrier Box
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your customer has requested that you implement a plan to give their two sites
complete resiliency.
Which two will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. IP Office Resiliency License
B. IP Phones with backup call server
C. IP500v2 with redundant processor
D. Preferred Edition
Messaging at both locations
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 In Windows Services, which tab would you use to allow the VoiceMail Pro service to
run as a specific
user?
A. General
B. Advanced
C. Log On
D. Dependencies
E. User
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer has opened up another location in London that will have four employees
and wants to SCN
this site with the current location in New York City which has an IP500 that has been installed
for over a
year without any software revisions.
Which two solutions do you recommend for the London location? (Choose two.)
A. Install the IP500 with the VCM 32 and the 12 port Ethernet switch on a UPS, ground the
IP500,
upgrade the IP500 to the same version as the IP500 in New York City, install four digital
phones, and
verify the correct software version on the phones.
B. Install the IP500 with VCM 32, add a digital station module on the IP500, Put the IP500
and the DS
module on a UPS, earth ground the IP500 and the digital station module, match the IP500
and DS
module with the version level with New York City and install the four digital phones.
C. Install four digital phones and create a VPN connection between London and New York
City for the
digital phones to connect back to the digital station module in New York City.
D. Install the IP500 with the VCM 32 on a UPS, a 12 port POE switch on a UPS, earth
ground the IP500,
match the IP Office version level with New York City, install four IP Phones, and verify the
correct
software version on the IP phones.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which two licenses are required to support an Interactive Voice Response (IVR) and
Text To Speech
(TTS) enabled auto attendant? (Choose two.)
A. IP Office Essential System license
B. IP Office Preferred System license
C. IP Office Advanced System license
D. VMPro TTS (Generic)
E. Database license
Answer: B,C

Avaya   3000-2   3000-2

NO.7 Call routing in a multi site SCN solution needs careful planning to prevent which three.?
(Choose three.)
A. VCM resources are not over subscribed.
B. VMPro ports are not over subscribed.
C. Trunk ports are not over subscribed.
D. ACD routes are not compromised.
E. Calls are not tromboned.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which two are power options for IP telephones on the IP Office? (Choose two.)
A. Class "B" 24 Volt power supply
B. 1151D1 Individual Power Supply and the 1151D2 Individual Power Supply with Battery
Backup
C. Class "A" 24 volt power supply
D. Power over Ethernet switch conforming to 802.3af standards
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 Which two cards can give the IP500 control unit the full ability to interface to a T1/E1
ISDN trunk
without additional licenses? (Choose two.)
A. IP 500 PRI U
B. Voice Compression Module
C. ISDN U
D. PRI 24/30
E. Legacy Carrier Card
Answer: D,E

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NO.10 A client requests VoiceMail Pro with UMS to be installed. During the installation
process the option for
UMS does not appear.
What is the cause?
A. The UMS service is installed automatically.
B. The UMS licenses have not been loaded.
C. The server platform does not meet the requirements.
D. The Windows account does not have permission.
Answer: C

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NO.11 You need to implement the new tourist information center (TIC) in Milan. The
requirement is to have an
Auto Attendant that can supply up to three levels (caller can choose option 1, then 2, and
finally option 3)
for 10 different information groups such as City Guides, "points of view", Hotels with available
room, etc.
An additional requirement is to have the voicemail to email option for all people working at
the TIC of
Milan.
Which IP Office version will meet these requirements for the least cost?
A. IP Office Preferred Edition
B. IP Office Preferred Edition and IP Office Advanced Edition
C. IP Office Essential Edition
D. IP Office Advanced Edition
E. IP Office Basic Edition
Answer: C

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NO.12 The design for an IP Office has two locations. They will need phones, voicemail, and
meet me
conferencing ability. They will have a PRI at the main office and the remote office will also
use it for
inbound and outbound calls. The main site has forty users and one fax machine. The remote
site has
fifteen users and one fax machine.
Which cards and modules are required in the IP Office at the main site to support all digital
phones?
A. IP500 Preferred edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal
PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module
B. IP500 Essential edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal
PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module
C. IP500 Essential edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32,
Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module
D. IP500 Preferred edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32,
Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module
Answer: D

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NO.13 A customer has opened up a new location in London that will have four employees.
They want to SCN
this site with the current location in New York City which has an IP500 that has been installed
for over a
year without any software revisions. The employees in London will use the New York City
location for all
outbound and inbound calls and want to be able to dial any extension at either location.
What should you recommend for this customer?
A. Install an IP500 with four digital phones in London and use short codes to dial across the
H.323 IP
trunk to connect back to New York City.
B. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in London and create a VPN connection between
London and New
York City with firewalls at both locations using double network address translations.
C. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in London and use the H.323 IP trunk for a SCN to
connect back to
New York City to dial out of New York City.
D. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in New York City and use the H.323 IP trunk for a
SCN to connect
back to London to dial out of London.
Answer: C

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NO.14 A customer is requesting space required for an IP500 and expansion modules. IT says
that they have
12U space (2U = 73mm / 2.9") available in their rack. 35 DS phones and 30 analog phones
are required.
The customer also has one analog trunk. In case of power failure, one analog phone has to
ring. The
VMPRO server takes 4U space on the rack.
What is the minimum space required for the IP Office?
A. 2U
B. 6U
C. 8U
D. 12U
Answer: B

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NO.15 A customer is running SIP phones that are locked down to G.729a.
What is the bandwidth used for the speech of ten simultaneous calls?
A. 63 Kbps
B. 80 Kbps
C. 560 Kbps
D. 640 Kbps
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 6002-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager and CM Messaging (R6.0) Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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Exam Code: 6203-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Voice Portal Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the last step to be completed before testing the initialization and configuration?
A. Start the MPPs.
C. Stop the MPPS.
C. Start Applications.
D. Stop Applications.
Answer: A

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NO.2 In addition to the Project Overview, Standard service hours, Call Center Telephony
Review, Call Center
Reporting Review, which other service is included in the Statement of Word (SOW)
component of a
project?
A. Call Center Development Services
B. Call Center Programming Services
C. Call Center Leadership Services
D. Call Center Consultant Services
Answer: A

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NO.3 Why is the "Hot word" Barge-in mechanism used?
A. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance is caught on that
prompt
B. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word
defined in the
grammar
C. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word
defined in the
grammar and the decision is defined
D. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word
defined in the
prompt
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer is planning to deploy a Voice Portal solution, and wants to make sure they
have considered
all aspects of their implementation design components. As a key component of the
implementation, which
documents are included in the Document Review?
A. Deep Drive Results, Equipment List, Customer List, and SOW
B. Customer Scenario, Equipment List, SOW and Deep Dive Results
C. Customer Scenario, Hardware List, Deep Dive Results and SOW
D. Customer List, Hardware List, SOW and the Equipment List
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer is using skills-based routing. Which Acaya Aura CM forms must be
administered to map the
requirements to agents/ports?
A. Vector and Agent LoginID forms
B. Hunt Group and Skill forms
C. Skill and Agent LoginID forms
D. Vector and Split forms
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two methods can be used to initiate a Voice Portal 5 x Primary VPMS restore?
(Choose two.)
A. system restore page in VPMS web administration
B. do_RestoreData -f /opt/Avaya/backup
C. restorempplogs.sh
D. do_MntDrv do_RestoreData -f /opt/Avaya/backup/remotesvr
Answer: BD

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NO.7 A customer has just upgraded Voice Portal to a newer version, but the license is not
upgraded. What is
the grace period provided by the system, for upgrading the license?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days
Answer: D

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NO.8 From the VPMS web interface, which menu path should be followed, to view the
current status of all
MPP servers and get detailed information about any alarms they have generated?
A. System Configuration > System Monitor
B. System Configuration > MPP Management
C. Real-Time Monitoring > Monitor System
D. Teal-Time Monitoring > System Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statement about Auxiliary VPMS is true?
A. Only one Auxiliary VPMS server can be added per Voice Portal 5.1 or newer system.
B. More than one Auxiliary VPMS server can be added per Voice Portal 5.1 or newer system.
C. Auxiliary VPMS can be installed on a single server Voice Portal system.
D. Auxiliary VPMS can be installed co-resident with MPP server.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A technician cannot see the VPMS web interface. What is the first thing that should be
done?
A. Restart all MPPs that are connected to the VPMS.
B. Reload the VPMS software.
C. Make sure that Axis is running.
D. Make sure that Tomcat is running.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Communication Manager Administration Exam)
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Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 There are two GUI-based access tools available: Avaya site administration (ASA) and system
management interface (SMI).
Which statement correctly differentiates between ASA and SMI?
A. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but ASA is being replaced by SMI.
B. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but SMI is for technicians and ASA
is for customers.
C. SMI provides access to less frequent administration, installation and upgrade functions, while ASA
provides access to day-to-day administration functions.
D. Old hardware and software (Pre - 5.x) is administered using SMI, while current hardware and
software (5.x and later) is administered using ASA.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Communication Manager Backups are done through the system management interface (SMI).
Which three statements about the Communication Manager backup function are correct? (Choose
three)
A. The backup function creates two complete files on the internal hardware drive.
B. The backup function can create a file on a network device using protocols: SCP , SFTP , or FTP .
C. The backup function can encrypt the file with a pass phrase.
D. The backup is done dynamically and cannot be scheduled in advance.
E. The full Backup option does not do Save Transaction Command Automatically before creating the
backup file.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.3 The Avaya Extension to Cellular feature provides users with the capability to have one
administered telephone that supports communication manager features for both an office
telephone and one outside cellular or wireless telephone, two fields must be set to "Yes" in order to
use this functionality:
Enhanced EC500 and extended Cvg/Fwd Admin.
Which command do you use to verify the field settings?
A. System-parameters features
B. System-parameters customer-options
C. System-parameters wireless
D. System-parameters converge-forwarding
Answer: B

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NO.4 Consider the signaling Group Information shown in the exhibit.
Which SAT command can you use to get the IP address of the Far-end Node of the Signaling group
50?
A. Display board CLAN10
B. List node-name all
C. List ip-address nodes
D. List ip-interface nodes
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are adding ten new IP telephones in a small company administered with a G430 Media
Gateway and a S8300D ICC main server. The G430 has the S8300D inserted in the slot V1, and
MM71 in the slot V2, and an MM712 in the slot V3.
Which hardware module will act as Gatekeeper for the telephones?
A. MM710
B. MM712
C. MGP on the media gateway
D. S8300D server using Processor Ethernet (PE)
Answer: D

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NO.6 A remote user Avaya softphone to work from home reports that the client desktop application
will not register. After verifying that the user has configured the softphone application to "point" to
the current IP address of a Communication Manager Gatekeeper using an administered extension,
you ask if the user supplied a password when logging on. The user confirms that the password was
used on each log-on attempt.
You look up the user's information and note that the type field is 4620 (IP telephone) and the
security code field is.
With reference to the scenario described in the exhibit, which action should you take to ensure that
the user can use the IP SoftPhone?
A. Change the IP SoftPhone field to y.
B. Change the Converge Path 1 value to match the value in converge path 2.
C. Change the message Lamp Ext value to match the extension number.
D. Change the name in the name field to match the name as administered in the LDAP directory.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You want a user's station to be able to dial extension 5605 and 5608 only.
Which station configuration will achieve this?
A. Assign COR 11 to user' station, In COR11
Set COR-to COR calling permission = 'n' for all except COR 10.
Assign COR to 5605 and 5608.
Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other station object.
B. The FRL = 7to user's station. FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608.
Set FRL for all other stations to 6 and lesser
C. Assign COR 10 to user's station.
In COR 11, set CPR-to-COR calling permission = 'n' for all except.
Assign COR 11 to 5605 and 5608.
Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other object.
D. The FRL = 5 to user's station, FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608.
Set FRL for all other stations to 5 or lesser.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 3104
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya one-X® UC Soft Clients Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which Avaya product performs the SIP network routing for Avaya one-X® CES?
A. Session Manager
B. Application Enablement Services
C. Communication Manager
D. System Manager
Answer: A

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5. When setting up the Presence Server in Avaya one-X® CES, you see that the Management
Service must be established.
Which IP address is used for the host Management Service?
A. Session Manager
B. Communication Manager
C. System Manager
D. System Platform
Answer: C

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6. To prepare for the installation of the Avaya one-X® CES solution template, a new administrator
account was added to the admin security group in the enterprise Directory. When trying to login to
the Avaya one-X® CES server, you receive the error message The User name or password you
provided not recognized.
Which troubleshooting action should you take do to resolve problem?
A. Login to the Enterprise Directory and verify the user name.
B. Login as admin and change the user name in the Avaya one-X® CES server.
C. Login to the System Manager/User management/Users and synchronize the System manager
with the Avaya one-X® CES server.
D. Login to the System Platform and edit the user name.
Answer: C

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7. You are in the process of investigating an error in the General Logging log. You first look at the
systemOut.log and you see that the protocol Aspect is enabled.
What is the other General log file you need to check to determine what the problem is?
A. SNMP log file
B. SAL log file
C. Trace.log file
D. Avaya one-X® CES log file
Answer: C

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8. While setting up the interface to Avaya Aura® Conferencing, one of the values is the BCAPI
host.
Which IP address is the BCAPI host?
A. Avaya Web Conferencing
B. Bridge
C. Web Portal
D. Conference Manager
Answer: A

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9. After the completion of Avaya one-X® CES solution template, you find that the transcoding
service
is unable to connect to the Transcoding Server in the Avaya one-X® CES system, you see that
the state is unavailable.
Which troubleshooting steps are needed to resolve problem?
A. Verify that the property values in the Transcoding server is Same as what is stated in the
System Manager server.
Determine that the /tmp/transcoding directory is present on the transcoding server
Verify the Host IP address
Restart the Avaya one-X® CES server
B. Ensure the /tmp/transcoding directory is Present on the handset Server
Verify the Host IP address is the same as the loopback IP address
Restart the transcoding Server.
C. Ensure the /tmp/transcoding Server is the same as what is stated on the Avaya one-X CES
admin web site.
Determine that the /tmp/transcoding directory is present on the Avaya one-X CES server.
Verify the host IP address is same as the loopback IP address.
D. Update the Avaya one-X CES Transcoding Services value via the Admin page.
Verify that the Host IP address and the loopback IP address are not same.
Restart the Transcoding server.
Answer: A

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10. You have a case where the calls to the user gets routed to Avaya one-X® Mobile and
voicemail at
the same time. You have verified that the user’s desktop telephone is set to Send all calls,
however, the Avaya one-X® Mobile device is disabled and the calls are registering as a call entry.
Which statement correctly describes the solution to this problem?
A. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Send all Calls on the mobile device when the Avaya
Deskphone is set to Block All Calls.
B. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Block all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Block All Calls.
C. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Block all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Send All Calls.
D. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Send all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Send All Calls.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two servers are optional with regard to the Restart the CES solution? (Choose two)
A. Session Manager
B. LDAP
C. Communication Manager
D. Presence
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 The Avaya one-X® Client Enablement Services (CES) has the choice of template sizes.
Which factor is used to decide the template size?
A. Extra feature purchased by the customer
B. The version of System Platform
C. The server type
D. The type of mobile devise that is being integrated into Avaya one-X® CES
Answer: C

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NO.4 While at a customer site, an out-of-memory space permanent generation (PermGen) error
occurs.
Which troubleshooting steps you perform so that error does not occur again?
A. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into Communication Manager as admin)
Type: /sbin/service/ reboot.
Installthe template
B. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into the Avaya one-X® CES server as admin)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat restart
Install all template
C. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into System Manager as admin/su to root)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat reboot
Login to the System Platform Web console
Install the template
D. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into cdom as admin/su to root)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat restart
Login to the System Platform Web console
Install the template
Answer: D

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Exam Code: QAWI201V3.0
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Web Intelligence XI 3.0)
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Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which three options are valid Page Layout Options in the Properties tab of a document? (Choose
three.)
A.Top margin
B.Left margin
C.Page orientation
D.Background color
E.Visited hyperlink colors
Answer:A B C

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NO.2 Which option can you use to convert a table block into a chart in Web Intelligence Rich Client?
A.Right-click the table block and select "Turn To"
B.Click Format > Charts and select "Convert to Chart"
C.Right-click the table block and select "Convert to Chart"
D.Click Tools > Charts and select "Change Table to Chart"
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which panel should you use to view a Document Summary of a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI
3.0 document (WID)?
A.Advanced
B.Query
C.Active X
D.Interactive
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which object types can you merge when using Multi Queries in a Web Intelligence document (WID)?
A.Dimension - Detail
B.Measure - Measure
C.Dimension - Measure
D.Dimension - Dimension
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which two panels can you use to purge data from a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 document
(WID)? (Choose two.)
A.Query
B.Report
C.Active X
D.Slice and Dice
Answer:A B

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NO.6 Which two operators are available when using wildcards in a query filter? (Choose two.)
A.LIKE
B.Matches Pattern
C.Not equals Pattern
D.Different from Pattern
Answer:B D

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NO.7 Which three types of local data files can you use to create a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0
document (WID)? (Choose three.)
A.TXT
B.XML
C.CSV
D.XLS
Answer:A C D

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NO.8 Which two options should you take before you finish creating a variable in Web Intelligence? (Choose
two.)
A.Save
B.Parse
C.Export
D.Validate
Answer:A D

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NO.9 You are working with a previously saved document and you have deleted a logical operator. Which two
methods can you use to recover the logical operator? (Choose two.)
A.Rebuild the filters.
B.Click the Undo button in the Query panel.
C.From the Tools menu, select Recover Operator.
D.Close the Query panel without executing and then open the query.
Answer:A D

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NO.10 Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the colors of
your document data?
A.Document Palette
B.Document Formats
C.Display Preferences
D.Data Tracking Options
Answer:D

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NO.11 Which method should you use to group query filters together to form one AND statement?
A.Drag the queries together
B.Drag the query filters to the Group panel
C.Select the filters, right-click and select Group
D.Select the filters, then click the Group Filters button on the toolbar
Answer:A

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NO.12 You are creating a report to summarize the number of cars sold by region. Which object should you use
to aggregate the number of cars sold?
A.Sum
B.Detail
C.Measure
D.Dimension
Answer:C

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NO.13 What happens when you drop a dimension into a blank part of a report that contains two blocks,
without the ALT key selected?
A.A new block is created.
B.A new section is created.
C.An error message is displayed.
D.The currently selected cell is displayed.
Answer:B

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NO.14 Which two statements are true about the AND operator? (Choose two.)
A.Used when any condition is met by two filters
B.Used when all conditions are met by two filters
C.Used when all conditions are met by more than two filters
D.Used when only one condition is met by any of the filters
Answer:B C

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NO.15 Which tab should you use to change the page orientation of a report?
A.Click File > Page Setup and select "Page Orientation"
B.In InfoView Preferences, change the default page orientation
C.Select the report tab; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page Orientation"
D.Select the report page; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page Orientation"
Answer:D

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NO.16 Which two break properties can you use when setting Break Priority? (Choose two.)
A.Order Breaks
B.Vertical Breaks
C.Crosstab Breaks
D.Horizontal Breaks
Answer:B D

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NO.17 Which three calculations can you use in a measure object in Web Intelligence? (Choose three.)
A.Min
B.Max
C.Count
D.Count All
Answer:A B C

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NO.18 Which message appears when you select "Use query drill" while Scope of Analysis is set in a
BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 report?
A.The Scope of Analysis is empty.
B.The Scope of Analysis is not empty.
C.The query drill mode option is enabled.
D.The query drill mode option is not enabled.
Answer:B

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NO.19 Which three elements are parts of a query filter? (Choose three.)
A.Class
B.Object
C.Operator
D.Operand
Answer:B C D

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NO.20 Where is a Web Intelligence variable stored?
A.In the cell
B.In the document
C.In the Metadata Cube
D.In the Central Management Server (CMS)
Answer:B

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Exam Code: SABE201
Exam Name: Business-Objects (BusinessObjects(TM) Enterprise Certified Professional XI - Level One)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Select two true statements about Scheduling Publications from below. (Choose two.)
A.You can schedule Publication that contains both Desktop Intelligence and Web Intelligence documents.
B.You cannot schedule Publication on a recurring basis.
C.You can test Publication before scheduling.
D.Scheduling Publications is an example of single-pass refresh bursting as oppose to multi-pass report
bursting.
Answer:C D

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NO.2 Which statement describes the role of BusinessObjects Enterprise within the Business Objects
Business Intelligence (BI) suite of products?
A.Allows you to analyze and interact with data from both relational and OLAP data sources.
B.Provides you with an open, scalable platform that supports all of your BI tools and applications.
C.Provides you with a process for accessing data, formatting it and delivering it as information to various
users.
D.Allows you to integrate, transform and deliver enterprise data from any source.
Answer:B

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NO.3 Assume you are using InfoView and need to locate a specific Web Intelligence report, but you cannot
remember its name. There are 15 Web Intelligence reports in the system and you have access to all
root-level folders. What would be the best way to locate the report?
A.Browse the folders and categories
B.Filter
C.Report off the CMS database
D.Use the Advanced feature of the Search function
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which two statements are true when you make changes to the report properties of a published Crystal
Report object using the Central Management Console (CMC)? (Choose two.)
A.The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is modified.
B.The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is not modified.
C.The changes are written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
D.The changes are not written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
Answer:B C

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NO.5 Once you grant the right to an application value (e.g. Print Documents set to Grant) to a user/group on
a specific application (e.g. Desktop Intelligence), you will still be able to grant that right (e.g. print) to one
Desktop Intelligence document but not the other Desktop Intelligence document.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.6 Which two statements are true regarding user access rights to a given object in BusinessObjects
Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Explicitly denied user access overrides all accumulated rights.
B.Objects inherit security from parent folders.
C.Global rights override all other rights.
D.Users inherit rights from the default group to which they belong.
Answer:A B

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NO.7 What options do users have for viewing reports in the Central Management Console (CMC)?
A.They can choose any viewer that is available in the CMC preferences.
B.They can view reports only with the CMC viewer.
C.They cannot view reports in the CMC, only administer the content.
D.They can view reports only with the DHTML viewers.
Answer:A

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NO.8 Where does the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure store a successful Web Intelligence
document instance?
A.The Output File Repository Server (FRS)
B.The Web Intelligence Report Server
C.The Web Intelligence Job Server
D.The Output Application Server (OAS)
Answer:A

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NO.9 How do you disable anonymous access in BusinessObjects Enterprise?
A.Within InfoView uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
B.Within Central Management Console (CMC) disable Guest account.
C.Within Central Configuration Manager (CCM) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
D.Within Central Management Console (CMC) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
Answer:B

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NO.10 Tasha belongs to the Sales Support group. This group was explicitly denied the View Object right on the
Sales folder. Tasha needs to view objects in the Reports sub-folder of the Sales folder. What change
should you make?
A.Change the Sales Support group's access rights on the Sales folder to View.
B.Change Tasha's access rights to View.
C.Explicitly grant Full Control to Tasha.
D.Explicitly grant the View Object right to the Sales Support group which disables inheritance.
Answer:A

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NO.11 What steps should you follow to make Report A run automatically every day upon the successful
completion of Report B?
A.Working in InfoView, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events
and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion window. Schedule Report A
to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to wait for window.
B.Working in the Central Management Console, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B
to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion
window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events
to wait for window.
C.Working in the Central Management Console, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run
daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs
successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
D.Working in InfoView, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add
the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the
custom event in the Central Management Console.
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which steps should you follow in the Central Management Console (CMC) in order to create a new
Profile that will enable you to use a Publication to distribute personalized information to each of your store
managers? (Select the best option.)
A.Select the Publication object, click on the Schedule tab, then on Profiles and click Add.
B.Select the Publication object, click on the Source tab, then on Profiles and click Add.
C.Select the Publication object, click on the Profiles tab and click New Profile.
D.Select the Profiles object, click New Profile.
Answer:D

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NO.13 The InfoView is mostly used for which of the following tasks:
A.Mostly for administering content
B.Exclusively for viewing reports
C.Viewing information about reports (Encyclopedia and Discussions)
D.Accessing information and some limited content administration
Answer:D

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NO.14 A user who has always scheduled objects for the Marketing department is leaving your company.
Which method should you use in the Central Management Console (CMC) to ensure that all recurring
instances owned by this user remain in effect but become owned by the Administrator?
A.Disable the departing user then click on the Transfer recurring instances to button and select the
Administrator. Click OK.
B.Delete the departing user; all recurring instances automatically transfer to the Administrator.
C.Open each recurring instance on the object's History tab then click on Schedule for and select
Administrator. Ensure that the instance will use the same recurrence pattern and parameter values.
Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
D.Download details of all the instances then log on to the CMC as Administrator and schedule them using
the same recurrence patterns and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have
been duplicated.
Answer:B

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NO.15 Which three BusinessObjects Enterprise servers interact directly with the databases that contain report
data? (Choose three.)
A.Desktop Intelligence Job Server
B.Crystal Reports Job Server
C.Crystal Reports Page Server
D.Web Intelligence Job Server
Answer:A B C

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NO.16 Which statement describes how corporate categories operate as a component of a content and
management plan for your BusinessObjects Enterprise system?
A.Categories must be set up to reflect each user's personal requirements.
B.Copies of objects must be added to each category where they are included.
C.Users have rights to access each object in a category based on its actual folder location.
D.Access rights to objects in categories must be set for each user.
Answer:C

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NO.17 You want department administrators to perform some basic administrative tasks that require them to
be able to access the Central Management Console (CMC). How will you give the department
administrators the right to be able to grant access to the CMC to other administrators in their own
departments?
A.In the Organize Objects area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator
group(s) and grant them the right to "Edit this object".
B.In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the
department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to "Full control".
C.In the Manage Settings area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator
group(s) and grant them the right to "Modify the rights users have to this object".
D.In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the
department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to "Modify the rights users have to this object".
Answer:D

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NO.18 Select two true statements from below. (Choose two.)
A.You cannot copy Calendar objects in CMC > Calendars area of administration.
B.You can create your own Calendars in BusinessObjects Enterprise; you have to use the pre-build
business calendars only.
C.You can schedule Web Intelligence documents based on an existing calendar.
D.Calendars can be created in InfoView.
Answer:B C

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NO.19 Which two actions does BusinessObjects Enterprise take when an instance is removed from the system?
(Choose two.)
A.Deletes the instance file from the Output File Repository Server
B.Deletes the record of the instance from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.Keeps the instance file in the Output File Repository Server
D.Keeps a record of the instance in the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
Answer:A B

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NO.20 Your user groups have different functional needs and your managers would rather employ a more
complicated user group structure than create additional folder levels. What approach should you use to
create a content plan that combines logical report organization and functional user access levels?
A.Use the logical-functional group method.
B.Grant each user advanced rights to each object.
C.Use the functional-folder method.
D.Create a logical content plan.
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 060-DSFA680
Exam Name: Altiris (Altiris Deployment Solution Foundation 6.8)
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NO.1 When capturing a computer's personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A. .INI
B. .A2I
C. .ASI
D. .PBT
Answer: B

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NO.2 How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A. layers can be imported to a managed computer
B. layers can be created
C. the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D. the content of a layer can be modified
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which Altiris utility creates the necessary media to run the Initial Deployment job from a CD?
A. ImageExplorer
B. RapiDeploy
C. PXE Configuration Utility
D. Initial Deployment Configuration Utility
E. Boot Disk Creator
Answer: E

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NO.4 AClient has been installed on your Windows XP managed computers.
Which three methods can be used to change the settings AClient is currently using? (Choose three.)
A. from the Deployment Console, right-click on the computer and select Change Agent Settings
B. from the Deployment Console, select Tools > AClient > Configurations
C. from the managed computer, select Start > All Programs > Altiris > AClient > Configuration
D. from the managed computer, double-click the AClient icon located in the system tray and select
Properties
E. from the Deployment Console, double-click on a computer and edit the client properties
F. use the Deployment Console to reinstall AClient with the desired settings
Answer: ADF

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NO.5 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the
Deployment Server.
Which statement is now true?
A. moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B. images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C. this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D. the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
Answer: B

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NO.6 Deployment Solution's Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
A. Java
B. DirectX
C. ActiveX
D. .NET framework
E. Pre-boot automation operating systems
F. SQL
Answer: DF

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NO.7 When using the DOS operating system, image files with an .EXE file extension _____?
A. cannot be deployed using a Deployment job
B. must be converted to .IMG before they can be deployed with a Deployment job
C. cannot be converted to .IMG files
D. can be deployed without using additional Altiris imaging software
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are using the Deployment Console's New Job Wizard to migrate a computer's personality from
one computer to different computer.
What happens to the names of these two computers during this process?
A. The destination computer is automatically given a new unique name.
B. The source computer is automatically renamed and the destination computer gets the original name of
the source computer.
C. The two computers will end up with identical names, therefore you must rename one of the computers
manually.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A. ImgViewer
B. ImageExplorer
C. ImageEditor
D. ImageManager
E. ImgManager
Answer: B

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NO.10 You have deployed a hardware independent image to an ACPI Uniprocessor computer and now the
computer will not start.
What is the probable cause?
A. the wrong hardware abstraction layer (HAL) was deployed
B. Sysprep was not run on the source computer
C. the ACPI Uniprocessor computer does not support hardware independent images
D. a clean Windows installation was not performed on the source computer before creating the hardware
independent image.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
A. %
B. #
C. $
D. *
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which Deployment Console method lets you work with software virtualization layers?
A. using a Deployment job
B. selecting Tools > Software Virtualization
C. right-clicking on a computer and selecting Software Virtualization > Manage Layers
Answer: A

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NO.13 When using Altiris PXE servers in a Deployment System, which PXE statement is true?
A. Multiple PXE servers can only be installed if a router separates them.
B. If a PXE server is configured to delay its response, it will respond only if no other PXE server responds
immediately.
C. A managed computer only uses the first PXE server it hears from.
D. Configuring multiple PXE servers to respond immediately causes errors on the managed computers.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which Deployment Solution component stores the main Deployment System program files?
A. Deployment Server
B. Deployment Database
C. Deployment Share
D. Microsoft DHCP Server
E. Deployment PXE Server
F. Deployment Console
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
A. SIDgenerator
B. SetupCapture
C. Sysprep
D. ImageExplorer
E. SIDconfig
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A. The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B. Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer's hard
drive.
C. The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D. The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
Answer: B

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NO.17 You can use _____ to ensure that your PXE servers are servicing the correct managed computers.
A. IP blocking
B. Conditions
C. MAC filtering
D. NetBIOS name recognition
Answer: C

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NO.18 While imaging computers, Deployment Solution supports the use of UNDI drivers.
Which UNDI driver statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. UNDI drivers are written specifically to work with the Altiris automation process.
B. UNDI drivers must be downloaded and installed from Intel's Web site before they can be used.
C. UNDI drivers let you image computers without obtaining a specific manufacturer's network driver for
each network card.
D. UNDI drivers do not support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
E. UNDI drivers support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
Answer: CD

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NO.19 Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A. Windows 2000
B. Windows 95
C. Windows NT
D. Windows XP
E. Windows 2003
F. Linux
G. Windows 98
Answer: ACDE

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NO.20 AClient has not been password protected.
Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer?
(Choose three.)
A. initiate Microsoft's Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B. view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C. change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console
D. change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E. monitor AClient's communication with the Deployment Server
F. reinstall AClient
G. edit the AClient template file
Answer: BCE

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