2013年10月31日星期四

HP certification HP0-J52 the latest examination questions and answers come out

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Exam Code: HP0-J52
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP SAN Infrastructure and Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 When powering down the SAN, what is an exception that would change the power down sequence?
A. The physical layout of the SAN devices is modified.
B. A non-standard sequence is used for power on.
C. A server is needed to run device management software.
D. Data in the cache is previously flushed.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which port type is used by building an LSAN on supported B-series 8Gb SAN Switches to provide the
routed paths between routed fabrics?
A. VEX_Port
B. E_Port
C. EX_Port
D. TE_Port
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which software utility can be installed by customers and used to perform SAN analysis and diagnostics
without supervision by an HP engineer?
A. SAN Visibility
B. SANXpert
C. ScanMaster
D. HPCC for SAN
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer needs a scalable SAN infrastructure and wants to add ports when they are needed.Which
B-series switch offers license upgrades in 16-port increments?
A. HP StorageWorks SAN Director 4/256
B. HP StorageWorks 8/40 SAN Switch
C. HP StorageWorks 8/80 SAN Switch
D. HP StorageWorks DC04 SAN Director
Answer: C

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NO.5 During the installation of an HP StorageWorks SN6000 Fibre Channel Switch there is a fatal POST error.
How is this indicated by the switch?
A. Fault light flashing red
B. blinking LED and audible alarm
C. audible alarm only
D. blinking heartbeat LED display
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the purpose of the DCFM Firmware Management checkbox labeled Overwrite current
firmware?
A. allows a user to re-apply the same version of firmware
B. write enables the NVRAM to allow firmware updates
C. enables updates of both copies of firmware
D. allows users to downgrade the version of firmware
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is a benefit of connecting servers to the SAN one HBA at a time?
A. It guarantees the connections are properly documented.
B. It allows the switch time to balance the load.
C. It prevents having to reboot the server.
D. It allows verification that the HBA properly logs into the fabric.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer wants to implement a new c-Class blade environment and connect it as an edge device in
an existing fabric and Ethernet network.Which cost-effective converged network interconnect device
should you recommend to help reduce the resultant network sprawl by up to 95%?
A. HP StorageWorks 4Gb SAN Switch for HP c-Class BladeSystem (Brocade 4024)
B. HP StorageWorks 400 Multiprotocol Router
C. HP Virtual Connect FlexFabric 10Gb/24-port Modules
D. HP StorageWorks 4/32 SAN Switch with Access Gateway enabled
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are installing Cisco MDS switches into a SAN environment.Which command allows you to verify the
status of all Fibre Channel interfaces?
A. show ports brief
B. switchshow
C. list port allocation
D. show interface brief
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is a feature of a B-series switch license upgrade?
A. inter-switch link (ISL) trunking
B. zero E-port capability
C. advancedWebTools
D. zoning
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-E43
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP SMB Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which statement is characteristic of the HP Midsized Business Center?
A. It is a one stop shop for all of HP's service solutions.
B. It is another name for HP Just Right IT.
C. It stresses manage, grow, and protect as keys for midmarket IT success.
D. It stresses sharing, connecting, creating, storing and printing as the key midmarket pillars.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The HP Imaging and Printing Group (IPG) helps shape the future of digital imaging and printing.
Which product is NOT part of the IPG portfolio?
A. HP Business Laptops
B. HP Photosmart Printers
C. HP Ink, Toner, and Paper
D. HP Laserjet Printers
Answer: A

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NO.3 In response to business growth, some companies add new IT hardware without having a clear IT
strategy or plan to keep up with that growth. What is this IT trend called?
A. cloud computing
B. consolidation
C. sprawl
D. business protection
Answer: C

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NO.4 The HP Personal Systems Group (PSG) helps shape the future of personal computing by transforming
how people think, feel, and connect. Which product is NOT part of the PSG portfolio?
A. HP Business Desktops
B. HP Ink and Paper
C. HP Business Laptops
D. HP Business Workstations
Answer: B

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NO.5 Sharing, Connecting, Creating, Storing, and Printing are the IT-enabled activities that serve as
the pillars for which HP solution offering?
A. HP Midsize Business Center
B. HP Just Right IT for Small Business
C. HP SMB Solutions
D. HP Authorized Reseller Solutions
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which HP products for smaller businesses provide a single, safe location for employees to share
files, documents, applications, and software?
A. HP Prolaint Servers
B. HP X1000 Network Storage Systems
C. HP D2000 Disk Enclosures
D. HP ProBook 4530
Answer: A

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NO.7 The HP Partner Sales Advantage Tool (PSA Tool) is primarily intended for use during which step in the
sales cycle?
A. Closing the Deal
B. Generating a Customer Offer
C. Identifying the Customer Pain Points
D. Detailed Solution Configuration
Answer: C

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NO.8 Determining if a customer is open to a meeting with HP and an HP solution is most closely aligned with
which step in the sales cycle?
A. Understanding the Customer Environment
B. Closing the Deal
C. Generating a Customer Offer
D. Qualifying the Opportunity
Answer: D

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NO.9 What are small and midmarket companies less likely to have on their websites than enterprise
companies.?
A. an annual report for the shareholders
B. details about the company's products and services
C. company news
D. a distinctive brand
Answer: A

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NO.10 Connecting is one of the IT enabled activities within the HP Just Right IT program. Which statement
best describes Just Right IT connecting?
A. managing important files, information, and data in a manner that is secure and easy to manage
B. linking networking solutions to boost productivity and customer management
C. making amazing things - whether it's a product, a service or a marketing piece - with the most
appropriate tools for the job
D. looking like a pro with digital imaging as well as capturing data found in print pieces
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP3-C32
Exam Name: HP (HP Color LaserJet Enterprise CP4020/CP4520 Series Printer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 In which modes can the HP Universal Print Driver (UPD) be installed?
A. discrete and universal
B. stationary and mobile
C. traditional and dynamic
D. specific and generic
Answer: C

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NO.2 What can be used to disable or alter the printer driver Services tab.?
A. embedded Web server (EWS)
B. HP Driver Preconfiguration Utility
C. printer driver Properties menu
D. Installable Options section of the device software CD
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are benefits of HP EasyColor? (Select two.)
A. Images are sectioned into multiple units.
B. Print quality is improved.
C. Print time is reduced.
D. MTIFF-specific printing is quicker.
E. RGB color is handled more efficiently.
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: HP0-M48
Exam Name: HP (HP LoadRunner 11.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 During a test run, why is it important to insert Run-time Monitors on Controller and Load Generator
machines?
A.to verify that Vuser ramp and Load Generator CPU usage are approximately the same
B.to verify that your test architecture is properly isolated from external disturbance
C.to ensure that test architecture performance is not lower than that of the architecture under test
D.to ensure that your test architecture can generate the desired load without itself becoming a bottleneck
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the correct way to simulate packet loss during a load test?
A.create a VuGen script that randomly generates failed transactions
B.insert high variable think times into VuGen scripts
C.set the proper percentage of packet loss in Run-time Settings: Network: Speed Simulation
D.use WAN Emulation software on Load Generators
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which goal is an example of a high level goal?
A.Error rate may not be higher than 10% of all transactions.
B.Update transaction must work in peak time.
C.500 users must be able to log in at the same time.
D.The Search transaction may not take longer than 3 seconds.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the Auto Correlate function?
A.to merge results from two load test scenarios
B.to autodiscover and document all bottlenecks detected during a performance test
C.to detect similar trends among measurements by correlating a measurement in one graph with
measurements in other graphs
D.to autogenerate reports correlated to a recipient's level of knowledge
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which filtering condition will be used to highlight only failed transactions in Analysis graphs?
A.transaction end status
B.host name
C.transaction name
D.error type
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which tool is used to manage and maintain a scenario?
A.VuGen
B.Analysis
C.Controller
D.Load Generator
r Generator
D.Launcher
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which default port is used for the communication between MI_Listener and Monitoring Agent?
A.443
B.1521
C.8080
D.50500
Answer: A

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NO.8 When should you use the IP Spoofer solution?
A.when generating a very high load
B.when emulating server or router optimizations, based on a client's IP
C.when using more than Load Generator hosts
D.when anonymizing your Load Generator during the test
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which HP LoadRunner application or component is used to upload the license?
A.Controller
B.Analysis
C.Virtual User Generator
D.Launcher
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which goal is an example of a measurable goal?
A.the number of iterations defined in the Run-time Settings (RTS)
B.the identification of the name of the application server
C.the expected transaction response time
D.the number of Load Generators to be used
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-E44
Exam Name: HP (HP Visual Collaboration Technical )
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Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which function does the HPVC Router perform?
A. system administration and component management
B. efficient transport of A/V streams
C. trans-coding to legacy systems
D. phone bridging to the corporate telephone system
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which Visual Collaboration product can deliver HD720p60/1080p30?
A. Visual Collaboration Desktop
B. Visual Collaboration Room 220
C. Visual Collaboration Portal and Gateway
D. Visual Collaboration Room 100
Answer: C

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NO.3 How do you access the Portal Maintenance page.?
A. from the Portal Server Shell account
B. from the Manager Admin page, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
C. from the Portal Super Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
D. from the Portal Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
Answer: B

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NO.4 What should you do when you cannot resolve an issue?
A. Attempt to format and recover the user ¯ s oerating system.
B. Generate a Diagnostics report (zip file) and forward to the next level of support analyst.
C. Attempt to un-install and re-install the software.
D. Attempt to replace suspected faulty hardware.
Answer: A

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NO.5 How do you access the Portal Maintenance page?
A. from the Portal Server Shell account
B. from the Manager Admin page, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
C. from the Portal Super Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
D. from the Portal Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-H18
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Retail Point of Sale Solutions Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 What must retailers do since they can no longer compete exclusively on price?
A. enhance CRM systems
B. expand inventory
C. improve shelf placement plan
D. expand advertising media
Answer: A

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NO.2 What should you tell a customer to best promote the HP ap5000 Point of Sale system?
A. It is a compact system that offers flexibility and style.
B. It is a modular and affordable Point of Sale terminal.
C. It is a system powerful enough to run your business.
D. It is a system specifically designed to meet all retail needs.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your customer has stated a p
Reference for an all-in-one solution.
Which HP POS product should you recommend?
A. rp5000
B. rp5700
C. ap5700
D. ap5000
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which touch screen monitor size is offered as an option for HP Point of Sale systems?
A. 11 inch diagonal
B. 13 inch diagonal
C. 15 inch diagonal
D. 17 inch diagonal
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your customer wants to buy one POS product that can be used in the store, the back office, or in a kiosk.
Which HP POS product should you recommend to this customer?
A. ap5800
B. ap5700
C. rp5700
D. rp5000
Answer: D

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NO.6 On which message should you focus when your customer asks you why they should buy HP-branded
peripherals?
A. simpler installation with HP Point of Sale products
B. standard HP warranty that can reduce Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)
C. longer lifecycle due to improved reliability
D. easy ordering process and available financing
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which feature has been added to the HP rp5800 that was not previously available on the HP rp5700?
A. magnetic stripe reader
B. 10" customer facing display
C. optional orientation of rp5800
D. support for digital signage
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which USB feature does HP offer customers to help them secure their Retail Point of Sale system.?
A. an optional lockable cover
B. plugs with cable lock
C. hidden inside of unit
D. de-activate via HP BIOS
Answer: A

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NO.9 Your customer has decided to install the HP All-in-One Point of Sale solution and wants to install one
optional Solid State Drive (SSD). How many GBs is the customer able to select?
A. 32GB
B. 64GB
C. 128GB
D. 256GB
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are meeting with a customer and are describing an HP Point of Sale system as "optimal for a range
of retailers, easily integrated with existing systems and designed to adopt new technology." Which HP
Point of Sale system are you describing?
A. ap5000
B. rp5000
C. ap5700
D. rp5700
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-M54
Exam Name: HP (ArcSight ESM Security Analyst )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 What is a good way for an operator or analyst to quickly determine which events must be addressed
first?
A. check the priority rating in a Dashboard or Active Channel
B. run a report of High Priority Threats
C. ask more senior analysts or architects
D. view the Event Grid and Correlation categories
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true about the ArcSight Web interface?
A. Data Monitors cannot be added to a Dashboard in the ArcSight Web interface.
B. Reports cannot be formatted in the ArcSight Web interface.
C. Inline filters cannot be used in the ArcSight Web interface.
D. Cases cannot be modified in the ArcSight Web interface.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which tools are used to view events in ArcSight ESM? (Select two.)
A. Active Channel
B. Knowledge Base article
C. Dashboard
D. Annotations
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 What does a Network Model include? (Select two.)
A. assets
B. destinations
C. zones
D. file resources
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which statement is true about inline filters?
A. An inline filter applies only to its current Active Channel.
B. An inline filter applies only as long as the Active Channel is open, and cannot be saved.
C. An inline filter cannot use AND or OR conditions.
D. An inline filter is created using Boolean logic in the Inspect/Edit panel.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which Event Schema group contains data fields, which describe the connector reporting an event?
A. Event
B. Device
C. Source
D. Agent
Answer: D

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NO.7 There are 17 event field groups defined in the ArcSight Event Schema. In which group would you look
for data fields describing an event's importance as assessed by ArcSight ESM?
A. Category
B. Threat
C. Attacker
D. Event
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which user role is responsible for building content within ESM?
A. Administrator
B. Analyst
C. Author
D. Operator
Answer: C

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NO.9 What stores information about logons, user actions, and the resulting events in the most concise way.?
A. Event annotations
B. Session Lists
C. Active Lists
D. Cases
Answer: B

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NO.10 What are valid actions for a rule to take? (Select two.)
A. send notification
B. execute command
C. generate report
D. add to filter
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: HP2-E49
Exam Name: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Servers, Storage and Networking - Upgrade )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 71 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 A long-time HP customer has an application that has developed a large quantity of unstructured
data. He is looking for a cost-effective storage solution for this data. Which drive technology is commonly
used for this type of data.?
A. SAS
B. SATA
C. PATA
D. SCSI
Answer: A

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NO.2 How do Integrity Virtual Machines (VMs) differ from vPars?
A. VMs use dedicated resources that are exclusively under the control of one kernel; vPars do not.
B. vPars employ the Platform Manager; VMs do not.
C. vPars are better than VMs for fine-grained, virtualized soft partitioning with shared resources.
D. VMs share processor and I/O devices among guest kernels; vPars do not.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which feature does the Integrity Superdome 2 support?
A. internal disk storage
B. zx2 chipset
C. passive backplane
D. sx2000 chipset
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which is a feature of the Matrix Operating Environment?
A. real-time capacity planning
B. control of all infrastructure elements
C. provision application environments
D. consolidation of Ethernet and storage networks
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which HP clustering software product allocates resources and manages application performance,
based on service-level objectives?
A. Tru64 Unix
B. HP-UX Workload Manager
C. HP OpenVMS
D. HP Serviceguard
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which requirements does the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) cloud service meet? (Select two.)
A. storage
B. application services
C. processing
D. database management
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 You have a customer who requires a storage solution for a large amount of structured data. Which drive
technology is commonly recommended for such a purpose?
A. SATA
B. IDE
C. PATA
D. SAS
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer hosts an Integrity server locally. The server is on a Percent CPU agreement within the HP
Pay-per-Use program. Which statement is true about this agreement?
A. The customer determines the percentage of CPUs that are active.
B. The Utility Metering Appliance reads all CPUs once every 24 hours and averages the utilization.
C. The customer can use up to 25% of the CPUs in the server.
D. Cost is based on the number of active processors.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which statement is true about Integrity virtual partitions?
A. They divide soft partitions into separate pools.
B. They provide isolation of cell boards through partitioning and virtualization technology.
C. They allocate a complete resource to a specific application.
D. They run their own image of an operating system to isolate an application from other applications
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which features of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise are supported by the HP Converged
Infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. plug-and-play storage
B. clustering
C. hot-add processor
D. virtual partitions
E. FlexFabric
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: HP2-H21
Exam Name: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Workstations)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 How many DIMM slots are available in the HP Z400 Workstation?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
Answer: C

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NO.2 In a conversation with your customer, you talk about the DDR3 feature of the HP Z400 Workstation.
What are you discussing?
A. disk drives
B. display driver
C. memory
D. processors
Answer: A

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NO.3 How many IO cards requiring a Gen2 x 16 PCI slot can a customer install in an HP Z400 Workstation.?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of displays that can be supported running 3D Graphics?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.5 .How much memory can you install in an HP Z400 Workstation?
A. 8 GB
B. 12 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 24 GB
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-K31
Exam Name: HP (Technical Introduction to the HP Storage SMB Portfolio)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 What is an advantage of SAS drives over SATA drives?
A. greater disk capacity
B. higher speed data transfers
C. lower cost per GB
D. hot-swap capability
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which type of storage uses a host bus adapter (HBA) located in the host server typically with a Fibre
Channel interface?
A. internal
B. DAS
C. SAN
D. NAS
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the function of HP StoreOnce Backup?
A. provides additional virtual devices and leverages existing EVA infrastructure
B. enables administrators to change backup software and monitoring policies
C. accelerates backup performance in complex SAN and iSCSI environments
D. increases the capacity and thus the complexity of a SAN environment
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which feature, included in HP StoreOnce Backup, eliminates redundant data during backups by saving
a single copy of identical data and replacing any further instances with pointers back to that copy?
A. deduplication
B. dynamic allocation
C. dynamic reallocation
D. low-bandwidth replication
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which type of disk drive provides the highest level of performance?
A. ISSD
B. IDE
C. SCSI
D. SATA
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is an advantage of the HP LeftHand 4000 Virtual SAN Appliance?
A. SAN benefits without dedicated external storage
B. file store for unstructured data
C. command view administration
D. minimized failure domains
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which type of storage includes an internal RAID controller?
A. NAS
B. SAN
C. DAS
D. FibreChannel
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which HP intellectual property innovations does StoreOnce deduplication software leverage? (Select
two.)
A. fine-grained, variable chunking
B. data sampling
C. policy enforcing
D. sparse indexing
E. locality optimizing
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which HP tape technology enables library-based encryption?
A. Ultrium 448
B. Super DLT II 600GB
C. Super DLT 320
D. LTO-5 Ultrium 3280
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the correct term for information typically found in a database?
A. metadata
B. hypermedia
C. structured content
D. unstructured content
Answer: C

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NO.11 In which type of RAID is each disk paired with another specific disk?
A. RAID0
B. RAID1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: B

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NO.12 DRAG DROP
Your customer has a tiered storage environment. Match each tier with the appropriate type of storage
media.
Drag the options on the right to match the choices on the left
Answer:

NO.13 What is a logical unit number (LUN)?
A. a unique ID used to present a larger or smaller view of disk storage to the server
B. a command data block sent by an iSCSI initiator to a target
C. an algorithm that determines whether an I/O stream will benefit from caching
D. a collection of Fibre Channel adapters (FCAs) that resides in the same virtual server
Answer: A

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NO.14 The HP LeftHand 4800 Storage for HP Bladesystem solves the performance issue often associated
with virtualized server environments. What is the main reason for this performance improvement?
A. dense spindle count
B. immediate access with Virtually Instantaneous Snapclones
C. effective utilization of storage space with Virtually Capacity-Free Snapshots
D. redundant storage sets
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which statement is true about HP Ultrium Tape Blades.?
A. They can be used with an HP SB40c Storage Blade and connected to the same server blade.
B. They are developed exclusively for HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosures.
C. They use TapeAssure for hardware data encryption.
D. They represent five generations of LTO tape blade technology
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-E52
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Cloudsystem and Converged Infrastructure Solutions Delta Exam)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 HP CloudSystem Enterprise lets your customers substantially increase organizational agility, enabling
them to rapidly respond to changing demands. What is one of the key benefits of this?
A. They are able to increase storage utilization and reduce the overall administration burden.
B. They reduce the amount of network bandwidth needed to deploy new services.
C. They gain the ability to virtualize existing environments and increase operations and administration
efficiency.
D. They gain the ability to scale and flex capacity in seconds, not hours, days or weeks.
Answer: C

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NO.2 According to a research study conducted by IDC, it takes IT organizations more than 20 days to deploy
a new application in a traditional environment. How long does deploying a converged infrastructure
solution take?
A. less than 5 days
B. less than6days
C. less than 15 days
D. less than 20 days
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which HP solution allows customers to deploy turnkey private and public clouds with full cloud service
automation?
A. HPAppSystem
B. HP CloudSystem Enterprise
C. HP BladeSystem
D. HPVirtualSystem
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a drawback of having a high number of legacy applications in rigid siloes on separate
infrastructure islands?
A. It is difficult for IT to perform system maintenance task with business users.
B. It is difficult for IT to maintain service level agreements and keep up with the speed of business.
C. It is difficult for IT to provide accurate assessments of the server and storage requirements and
manage software updates.
D. It is difficult for IT to predict resource requirements on a three-year rolling plan.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Why would a customer need cloud-bursting options?
A. to enable them to automatically access additional services when private resources have been fully
used
B. to meet big data demands and maximize data reliability and security
C. to allow additional users to access a particular service
D. to ensure resources can be effectively used and reallocated without human intervention
Answer: B

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2013年10月30日星期三

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Exam Code: HP0-Y20
Exam Name: HP (ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Fundamentals)
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NO.1 What is the maximum number of port trunk groups a customer can define on a ProCurve Switch
5412zl being used to aggregate traffic at the distribution level?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 24
D. 36
Answer: D

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NO.2 What information, normally associated with the wireless network name, is required by the wireless
clients in order to establish connections to the access point?
A. pre-shared key
B. Independent Basic Service Set
C. Service Set Identifier
D. shared secret
Answer: C

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NO.3 The IT manager of a medium-sized retail store is configuring a wireless network. As a first step in
securing the wireless network, the manager decides to enable the Closed system parameter on each of
the ProCurve Access Point 530 devices. What is the main difference between Open and Closed wireless
networks?
A. In an Open system, the SSID is advertised to clients; in a Closed system the SSID it is not advertised.
B. A Closed system requires the client's wireless MAC address be configured on the access point; an
Open system does not require MAC authentication.
C. A Closed system requires the client to have a pre-shared key; an Open system does not require a
pre-shared key.
D. An Open system requires the use of 802.1X and RADIUS authentication; a Closed system does not
require the use of 802.1X and RADIUS authentication.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which configuration and monitoring interfaces are available when you access a ProCurve switch
through Telnet? (Select two.)
A. menu interface
B. web interface
C. command line interface
D. boot monitor interface
E. ProCurve Manager interface
Answer: AC

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NO.5 You must test and qualify new ProCurve switch software in a production network limited to a single
switch. Which two tasks combined enable you to test and qualify the new software without losing the
existing qualified production software? (Select two.)
A. Boot the switch to the secondary flash.
B. Upload the new software to a VLAN flash.
C. Boot the switch to the new software.
D. Dump the qualified software to a file and upload the new software.
E. Reset the VLAN to boot to the new software in the VLAN flash.
F. Upload the new software to secondary flash.
Answer: AF

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NO.6 Which configuration steps are required to enable a ProCurve Layer 2 switch to synchronize its clock
with a SNTP server located on a different IP subnet? (Select three.)
A. Enable SNTP.
B. Enable TimeP.
C. Define a default IP gateway.
D. Configure for SNTP broadcast mode.
E. Enter the IP address of the SNTP server.
Answer: ACE

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NO.7 Which ProCurve Manager wizard simplifies the task of changing the SNTP server IP address
parameter on 50 ProCurve 5406zl switches?
A. Time-Sync Wizard
B. CLI Wizard
C. IP Address Wizard
D. Configuration Wizard
E. Switch Update Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.8 An existing 1000Base-T link between two ProCurve 5406zl switches at a small university is configured
as a member of the faculty VLAN. After the IT manager configured a four-port trunk between the switches,
members of the college's faculty reported that they can no longer access servers that were available
before the trunk was installed. Which statement describes a likely solution for this problem?
A. A new link must be configured for the VLAN because the maximum number of VLANs that the port
trunk can support has been exceeded.
B. The port trunk must be configured for tagged membership in the faculty VLAN because port trunks do
not support untagged VLANs.
C. The switch-to-switch link must be added to the port trunk because the switches cannot simultaneously
support port trunks and single-port links between switches.
D. The port trunk must be configured for membership in the faculty VLAN because the trunk ports are
automatically assigned to the default VLAN as untagged members.
Answer: D

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NO.9 A ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) server located at an insurance company has been reported as not
discovering any manageable devices except those on the subnet where the PCM+ Management Server
resides. Which statement is true about this behavior?
A. This behavior is normal because PCM+ discovery messages do not cross router interfaces.
B. This behavior is normal because PCM+ discovery uses Link Layer Discovery Protocol, which only
survives one switch-to-switch hop.
C. This behavior indicates that PCM+ has been configured with an incorrect default gateway.
D. This behavior is normal because by default, automatic discovery only occurs on the subnet that the
PCM+ management server belongs to.
Answer: D

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NO.10 When designing a wireless network, it is very important to consider the frequency range in which the
network operates and the maximum throughput of the network to ensure that it can meet the customer's
needs. Which wireless LAN standards specify frequency and maximum throughput of wireless networks?
(Select three.)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11d
D. 802.11e
E. 802.11f
F. 802.11g
G. 802.11i
Answer: ABF

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NO.11 You are configuring spanning tree on ProCurve switches at a customer site. Why would you configure
a particular switch to have a higher bridge priority? (Select two.)
A. to force all of the switch's ports to be blocked
B. to make it less likely that the switch's ports will be blocked
C. to cause the switch to remove BPDUs from the network
D. to make it more likely that the switch will become the root
E. to increase the path cost of all switch links
Answer: BD

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NO.12 A ProCurve University IT manager is on-site with a task to configure six new ProCurve switches for
in-band management access. Which connectivity method will facilitate this? (Select two.)
A. Telnet
B. SNMP
C. menu interface
D. serial console
E. XMODEM
Answer: AB

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NO.13 After connecting five ProCurve Switch 5300xl switches, you find that Spanning Tree Protocol is
enabled by default and that some switch ports are in the Blocking state. Which statement best describes
the default Spanning Tree operation of ProCurve 5300xl switches? (Select two.)
A. All the switches use the standard version of Spanning Tree Protocol.
B. All ports are set to Fast Uplink mode, and because of the enhanced mode, their port status is shown as
"Blocking."
C. All the switches use Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol.
D. All the switches use Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
E. If any of the five switches' firmware supports Multiple Spanning Tree, all other switches automatically
switch to the Multiple Spanning Tree mode.
F. The switches will interoperate with neighboring switches that use Spanning Tree Protocol or Rapid
Spanning Tree Protocol.
Answer: CF

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NO.14 In a Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol network using six ProCurve Switch 3500yl switches, you notice
that multiple switches have declared themselves Root in one of the Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
instances. How can you correct this problem?
A. Modify the port priorities on all switch-to-switch links so that one switch has the highest priority value.
B. Set the Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol parameters to use the switch with the highest hardware MAC
address as the Root switch.
C. Trace VLAN routing topology and modify the VLAN assignments on the switches so that they match.
D. Change the bridge discovery priorities on the switches to distinct values.
E. Check and modify the switches so that they have the same configuration name and revision number.
Answer: E

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NO.15 An IT administrator enters the show flash command on a ProCurve switch. What will this command
display?
A. the configurations on the switch
B. the current version of software running
C. the configuration available in memory
D. a list of all software versions stored on the switch
Answer: D

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NO.16 In a ProCurve Switch 5300xl, you change the following using the CLI:
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# configure
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# password manager
New password for Manager: *********
Please retype new password for Manager: ********
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# password operator
New password for Operator: *********
Please retype new password for Operator: *********
The new password for Manager is HPinvent# and the new password for Operator is hpINVENT!
Which login name and password are needed for the web interface if the administrator requires read/write
access? (Select two.)
A. Manager
B. hpINVENT!
C. HPinvent#
D. Operator
Answer: AC

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NO.17 What are the primary solution categories of the Adaptive EDGE Architecture? (Select three.)
A. security
B. availability
C. convergence
D. reliability
E. upgradeability
F. mobility
G. cost-effectiveness
Answer: ACF

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NO.18 The IT manager of a large call center has configured four ProCurve Switch 5412zl's for HP Switch
Meshing. How does a switch that is part of the mesh handle broadcast and multicast traffic that originates
from a port outside the mesh?
A. It will replace broadcast and multicast addresses with the unicast MAC addresses of its neighbors in
the mesh.
B. It will forward both broadcast and multicast traffic over ports that form the loop-free topology
established by the meshing protocol.
C. It will flood broadcast and multicast traffic through meshed and non-meshed ports.
D. It will send a query to its directly connected neighbors to find out whether any of the neighbors'
connected hosts can respond to broadcasts and multicasts.
Answer: B

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NO.19 A customer inquires about configuring the IP address on a new ProCurve 3500yl switch. What can you
do to configure this information on the switch? (Select two.)
A. Connect to the switch using the Telnet interface, enter the global configuration level, and assign a
box-wide IP address.
B. Leave the switch at its factory default settings and allow it to acquire an IP address, mask, and default
gateway from a DHCP server.
C. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, and
assign a box-wide IP address and mask.
D. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, enable
DHCP, and assign an address scope.
E. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, and assign
an IP address and mask within the context of the VLAN used for management access .
Answer: BE

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NO.20 Which ProCurve CLI command enables you to move from the Manager level to the Global
Configuration level?
A. global-su
B. su-enable
C. globalcfg
D. sw-disable
E. configure
Answer: E

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NO.21 Which statement is true about mesh switches configured with Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
connected to non-meshed switches in the same spanning tree domain?
A. The mesh switches appear as a set of multiple blade switch units to the non-mesh switches.
B. The mesh switches cannot join a non-mesh topology even if all switches support Spanning Tree
Protocol.
C. A mesh topology appears as a normal cascaded topology with ports blocked by the Spanning Tree
Protocol services.
D. The mesh switches appear as a single logical switch to non-meshed switches.
Answer: D

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NO.22 While presenting an overview of ProCurve Manager at a customer site, you differentiate between the
features of ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) and ProCurve Manager. Which features are only included in
PCM+? (Select two.)
A. VLAN management
B. alerts
C. automatic discovery
D. scheduled software updates
E. network topology mapping
Answer: AD

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NO.23 Which command must be entered at the CLI of a ProCurve switch to ensure recent configuration
changes will not be lost when the switch is restarted?
A. write memory
B. save config
C. save flash -overwrite
D. commit change
E. write flash -overwrite
Answer: A

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NO.24 A customer that is installing several ProCurve 3500yl switches asks about the Link Layer Discovery
Protocol (LLDP) support capabilities on these switches. Which statement is true about LLDP operation?
A. It is globally disabled by default to avoid any performance impact.
B. LLDP is a reciprocal protocol that provides acknowledgement for each packet transmitted.
C. The ports placed in Blocked state by Spanning Tree Protocol prevent LLDP messages from being
transmitted.
D. The LLDP neighbors table contains the system name and MAC address of neighbors.
Answer: D

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NO.25 When an IT manager of ProCurve University is configuring a ProCurve switch using the CLI, what is
indicated by the command prompt Switch_1A#?
A. The switch is located on floor 1, building A.
B. Host name for the switch has not been defined.
C. Current context is the global configuration level.
D. Current context is the manager level.
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which issues found in legacy core-oriented networking solutions can be resolved by migrating to
ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Architecture? (Select two.)
A. Legacy core switches lack the capacity for implementing Layer 2 and Layer 3 redundancy
technologies.
B. Traffic forwarding must pass through core switch before routing, security, and prioritization tasks can be
performed.
C. Emerging protocols and standards such as IPv6 cannot be supported by legacy core switches.
D. As each switch is added at the edge, it increases the decision making load in the core and constrains
scalability.
E. Routers in core-oriented networks must perform more complicated packet manipulation than routers in
edge-oriented networks.
Answer: BD

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NO.27 What is the free trial period for ProCurve Manager Plus?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 2 months
D. 6 months
Answer: B

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NO.28 All of the ports that will be included in a newly developed mesh of four ProCurve 3500yl Series
switches are configured for membership in customer VLANs. How will the mesh configuration affect the
VLAN configuration?
A. The mesh ports will only be able to retain membership in a single untagged VLAN.
B. The mesh ports will automatically become a tagged member of all configured VLANs.
C. The mesh ports will automatically become a member of the default VLAN and must be configured for
other VLAN membership.
D. The mesh ports will not be a member of any VLANs until the VLAN assignments are manually
configured.
Answer: B

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NO.29 When considering the following options to manage a new installation of ProCurve network devices,
which options will support ProCurve Manager as a central management platform? (Select two.)
A. IBM p-series Server running IBM AIX 5L
B. HP Integrity Server running HP-UX 11i v3
C. HP Business Desktop running Microsoft Windows XP Professional
D. HP ProLiant server running SuSE Linux Enterprise Server
E. HP ProLiant server running Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition
Answer: CE

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NO.30 What is the effect when switch ports are placed in Blocking state by Spanning Tree Protocol?
A. The switch will not forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will forward any secured
Telnet traffic.
B. The switch will only forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will not receive any
network user traffic through those ports.
C. The switch will not forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will forward traffic related
to Link Aggregation Control Protocol and Bridge Protocol Data Units.
D. The ports are completely blocked and marked Not Used (zero transmission).
Answer: C

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